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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author9 Posts
  #1

A 75 year old man has a painless mass in the left upper anterior neck. examination of tissue obtained on biopsy shows partial replacement of lymph node by a neoplasm. the neoplasm is composed of cohesive sheets of polygonal cells with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm, prominent intercellular bridges, and pleomorphic round nuclei. Immunocytochemical preparations show a strongly positive reaction of the neoplastic cells to a high molecular weight keratin antibody. There is no reaction to antibodies against vimentin and leukocyte common antigem (CD45). which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Non-hodgkin lymphoma
d. Sarcoma
e. Squamous cell carcinoma


  #2

Gosh, this is tough.

I think it sounds like malignant melanoma.


  #3

pay attention to the keratin antibody

  #4

squamous cell carcinoma

  #5

pure step1...! agree with SCC


  #6

If you are thinking as cytokeratin marker why not AdenoCa? it's also epithelial tissue, and can;t that be the Virchow's node? I am confused sad

  #7

I am sure that is Adenocarcinoma, remermber positive Cytokeratin is Carcinomas. P.87 First Aid Step 1

  #8

e. Squamous cell carcinoma , prominent intercellular bridges


  #9

left upper anterior neck+keratin antibody+intercellular bridges
I will choose squamous and it is the most common cause of lymph nodes of this position







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