mitty Forum Guru
Topics: 52 Posts: 376
| | 07/27/06 - 05:57 PM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
A 19-year-old man with a genital herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) infection is treated with acyclovir but fails to respond to the drug. This therapy is stopped, and foscarnet treatment is begun. Within 1 week, the patient’s condition improves. The most likely explanation for the patient’s failure to respond to acyclovir was that the infecting HSV was a mutant strain that lacked A. cytosine deaminase. B. DNA polymerase. C. reverse transcriptase. D. thymidine kinase. E. thymidylate synthase.
___________________ He will make it happen.
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| robin082006 Forum Hero

Topics: 471 Posts: 5,125
| | 07/27/06 - 06:04 PM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
D
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| sigmadx Forum Newbie
Topics: 1 Posts: 13
| | 07/27/06 - 06:27 PM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
ditto
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| sridevibandaru24 Forum Guru
Topics: 33 Posts: 434
| | 07/29/06 - 10:02 AM  
 
   
 
|   #4 |
D
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| young_doc Forum Guru

Topics: 55 Posts: 732
| | 08/01/06 - 12:49 PM  
 
   
 
|   #5 |
Acyclovir needs to be Phosphorylated 3 times in order to be activated. The first time it's done by the viral thymidine Kinase. The other 2 times it's done be host kinases. So mutation in the viral thymidine kinase would prevent Acyclovir from being activated. D!
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