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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author8 Posts
  #1

A 1 YEAR OLD GIRL IS BROUGHT TO THE PHYSICIAN BY HER GRANDMOTHER BECAUSE OF A 1 WEEK HISTORY OF CRYING IMMEDIATELY BEFORE AND DURING BOWEL MOVEMENTS . SHE IS OTHERWISE ASYMPTOMATIC. EXAMINATION SHOWS NO ABNORMALITIES EXCEPT FORAN ANAL FISSURE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST APPROPRIATE INITIAL STEP IN MANAGEMENT?

A) NOTIFICATION OF CHILD PROTECTIVE SERVICES.
B) STOOL SOFTENER THERAPY.
C) ANAL DILATATION IN THE OFFICE
D) EXCITION OF THE FISSURE.
E) SPHINTERECTOMY.


  #2

b



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original mazinger z

  #3

agree, one of the initial managements.

  #4

Some people choose A - is anal fissure in young child indicative of sexual abuse?

  #5

Could be (B)
Hate this borderline ethical Qs...

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Don't live in a town where there are no doctors

  #6

My experience says that if it is supposed to be child abuse there would be more clear cut clues. I would go for B.

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Of all the things I have lost,I miss my mind the most.

  #7

go for B

  #8

is it ok to give stool softeners to 1 yr. old child???

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syra







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