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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author9 Posts
  #1

70 year old male alcoholic patient with h/o variceal bleeding two years ago, now stable, comes for a follow up consult. He is on Aspirin and Metoprolol. Liver and spleen tip not palpable. No edema. No ascites. What medication should he avoid?

a) ciprofloxacin
b) ibuprofen
c) lorazepam
d) losartan
e) prednisone

what do you think? I know the answer... but I just think itīs not "clear-cut" right.

___________________
Guillermo Ballarino

  #2

:? answer b

  #3

a little explanation will not hurt... :wink:

Option B is incorrect.

However, that was my choice too... And I think that any NSAID (including Aspirin, which he already takes) will be detrimental to his condition because cirrhosis is a state of 'relative hypovolemia', in which despite the high total body water, flow to critical vascular beds is compromised.

In the kidney, prostaglandins are essential in maintaining renal perfusion and inhibition of cyclooxygenase will certainly compromise glomerular filtration rate. This is also true in congestive heart failure.

Maybe this patient is not THAT descompensated, but he already takes aspirin, so i wouldnīt dare giving him another PG inhibitor.

:?: So... which do you think is the correct choice?

I would apreciate that someone could point me my mistake.

___________________
Guillermo Ballarino

  #4

c, is it loragepam

  #5

maybe prednisone then cuz u dont want to promote infections as he is at risk for spont bacterial peritonitis

lorazepam is not given in liver failure but he seems to be ok right now

  #6

Well...

the correct answer is C) Lorazepam. :!:

Reason? any kind of sedatives are contraindicated because of the possibility of causing hepatic encephalopathy.

Nevertheless... :idea: I think that there are no more reason to think lorazepam will cause H.E. than to think that ibuprofen will cause prerrenal azotemia or corticoid will favor development of spontaneous peritonitis or other infections that would decompensate this patient. The question is kind of tricky... cirrhotic patients are very delicate; in general they should be given no medication that is not fully justified. Any unnecesary medication can cause harm.

Or perhaps, I should just stop looking for "zebras" (if you know what i mean) :wink:

Can we expect to get this questions in USMLE? :?

___________________
Guillermo Ballarino

  #7

hey where is this question from?
so hepatic encephalopathy is caused by sedatives, not hyperammonia

maybe lorezapam is the right answer but explanation seems fishy

anyways we can hope not to get these questions in usmle, but there will be many other tricky ones smiling face

  #8

ok... so I found this in Harrisonīs Principles of internal medicine. :shock:

All medicines must be administered with caution in the patient with cirrhosis, especially those eliminated or modified through hepatic metabolism or biliary pathways. In particular, care must be taken to avoid overzealous use of drugs that may directly or indirectly precipitate complications of cirrhosis. For example, vigorous treatment with diuretics may result in electrolyte disturbances or hypovolemia, which can lead to coma. Similarly even modest doses of sedatives can lead to deepening encephalopathy. Aspirin should be avoided in patients with cirrhosis because of its effects on coagulation and gastric mucosa. Acetaminophen should be used with caution and in doses of less than 2 g/day. Patients who drink alcohol are more sensitive to the hepatotoxic effects of acetaminophen, probably due to increased metabolism of the drug to toxic intermediates and decreased glutathione levels.


This paragraph clearly show that there are more than one possible answer to this question.

About the source... the question came from Kaplanīs Qbank. I must say... not all the question in Qbank are as tricky and "fishy" as this one.

___________________
Guillermo Ballarino

  #9

u quoted 'Similarly even modest doses of sedatives can lead to deepening encephalopathy' this means if pt is already in encephalopahty, sedatives can aggravate it. the guy in your scenario doesnt even have any sx right now & he is doing well for 2 yrs. anyways still thanks for all the explanantion. these kinda questions r easy to miss as we dont have time of the day to spend on one question on usmle sad







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