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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author12 Posts
  #1

An asymptomatic 65 year old woman comes to the gynecologist for a routine examination
physical examination shows a left adnexal enlarment that was not there a 1 year ago
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis ?

a.-endometriosis
b.-leiomyoma
c.-ovarian tumor
d.-polycystic ovarian disease
e.-ruptured luteal cyst


raised eyebrow

  #2

By exclusion, only C is suitable


___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #3

I agree

nod

Ovarian Tumor

  #4

I agree with C as well, but how would you rule out PCOS?

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Our greatest glory is not in never falling, but in rising every time we fall.

  #5

PCOS must have signs of increased androgen

___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #6

Ok, if they don't say anything about androgen levels, just assume normal?

___________________
Our greatest glory is not in never falling, but in rising every time we fall.

  #7

yes, for USMLE questions, assume normal when not said, this rule is applied for other questions too.

Kaplan qbank also assume this way.


___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #8

wat abt B guys????

  #9

a quick way: ovarian ca is very insidius, ca till proven otherwise, as robin said this is a dx of exclusion.

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Smell the coffee! "Is That an Osler move??"

  #10

ill take 2 distractors endometriosis is usually dot like endometrial tissue in women of chil bearing age.

#2 if the cyst ruptured how will you see a gross enlargement?????

someone else take the other 2


___________________
Smell the coffee! "Is That an Osler move??"

  #11

at this age, it's Ovarian cancer until proven otherwise.

___________________
Flex

  #12

Leen
Leiomyoma usually never starts after menopause
Even if it has appeared before menopause, it starts to decrease or regress after menopause because it needs estrogen for its growth
So Leiomyoma should not be considered for this case







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