Cedrick
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A 25 year old woman,gravida 1,para 0 who is Rh negative,delivers a full term Rh positive neonate.The mother is given prophylactic anti-Rho{D} immune globulin
immediately post partum.
During her second pregnancy 3 years later,she is screened each trimester for Rho {D} antiboies
An indirect antiglobulin test done during the third trimester indicates the precense of anti-Rho{D} antibodies in her serum
Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for the occurrence of these maternal antibodies ?
a.-anamnestic production of maternal anti-Rho{D} immunoglobulin
b.-intrauterine transplacental fetal-maternal hemorrhages during the second pregnancy
c.-residual circulating prophylactic anti-Rh{D{ immunoglobulin
d.-transplacental passage of fetal IgG anti-Rho{D} antibodies
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| Cedrick
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Found it !!! it suppresses immune response of the mother who is exposed to blood from the new pregnancy resulting from transplacental feta-maternal hemorrhages
Choice B
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| DrLooLi
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yes, it's B i guess.
remember RhoGAM only protects each pregnancy at a time.
meaning she can develop ab ineach pregnancy, ofcourse given she's not immunized at that time.
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| tolito
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A is ruled out cos if it was anamnesic, she should have been producing it all the while as IgG though at a low level
C is out same reason as A.
D is out cos the fetus does not produce IgG. only IgM and that does not cross placenta
B yes. cos transplacental transfer of blood occurs in third trimester and during labour and that would trigger off the production of Ig by mom. ( this is the reason why some centres propose giving rhogam during pregnancy and also immediatedly after birth).
the first injection at first pregnancy mopped up all the antigen and prevented her immune system from detecting the antigen.
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