A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent, severe, sharp abdominal pain that occurs primarily after meals and lasts about 30 to 60 minutes. There is no fever, diarrhea, or weight loss. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
A ) Acute cholecystitis
B ) Ascending cholangitis
C ) Biliary colic
D ) Primary biliary cirrhosis
E ) Sclerosing cholangitis
rman Forum Senior
Topics: 39 Posts: 123
06/19/06 - 12:51 PM  
 
  #2
With A there would be fever; with D&E there would likely be jaundice. C makes most sense but how do you eliminate B? Is ascending cholangitis more sever so you would expect fever, diarrhea, and weight loss?
bangledoc Forum Senior
Topics: 10 Posts: 138
06/19/06 - 05:18 PM  
 
  #3
The answer is C.
bangledoc Forum Senior
Topics: 10 Posts: 138
06/19/06 - 05:19 PM  
 
  #4
bangledoc wrote: The answer is C.
spjokes Forum Senior
Topics: 3 Posts: 88
06/19/06 - 05:29 PM  
 
  #5
Ascending cholangitis (B) could be eliminated rman, Charcot's triad of fever with rigor, UQ abd pain and intermittent jaundice are characteristic of ascending cholangitis.
Another Charcots triad could be seen in Multiple sclerosis Nystagmus, intention tremor, and scanning or staccato speech.