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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author13 Posts
  #1

A 52 year old man has intermittent episodes of supraventricular tachycardia. During these episodes, he has a pulse of 190 to 200/min and a systolic blood pressure of 60-80 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the hypotension?

A. Depressed myocardial contractility
B. Erroneous blood pressure readings
C. Inadequate sympathetic tone
D. Inadequate ventricular filling
E. Intravascular volume depletion




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  #2

D?

  #3

D


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  #4

Not sure.

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Our greatest glory is not in never falling, but in rising every time we fall.

  #5

it is definitely D. with tachycardia the time for diastole is affected the most. that is the phase during which ventricular filling occurs. with decreased preload outut decreases.

___________________
If you yourself are at peace, then there is at least some peace in the world.

  #6

E. person has hypovolemia. decreased systolic pressure. this cause the heart rate to increase---> increased pulse pressure. Its just a guess...

  #7

d is probable answer

  #8

i think D is the appropriate answer

  #9

d it is only one that makes sense

  #10

D fore sure, Kaplan has a similar q

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  #11

D

  #12

ok D...




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Our greatest glory is not in never falling, but in rising every time we fall.

  #13

D D D definitely







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