bakpity
Forum Senior
Topics: 28
Posts: 71
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A 27-year-old man from Egypt presents to the emergency department with fever, headache, severe prostration, and abdominal pain. The patient was unable to give a history, but a family member stated that these symptoms have been getting progressively worse over 2 days. There is no significant medical history, and nobody in the immediate family is ill. On physical examination, the patient is hypotensive with a fever of 103.2°F (39.6°C). He appears semiconscious and has a maculopapular rash on the upper and lower extremities and cervical rigidity. Ophthalmological examination does not reveal papilledema.
Abnormal laboratory test results include an elevated WBC count of 32,000 cells/mL, a low platelet count of 63,000 cells/mL, a low fibrinogen level, and an elevated prothrombin time. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the CSF is found to be turbid with a protein level of 138 mg/dL and a polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 46 cells/mL. The glucose content is low at 32 mg/dL.
What is this? Tx?
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| zaki
Forum Guru
Topics: 92
Posts: 398
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Meningococemia, iv penicillins (ceftriaxone), fluids , and may needs steroids.
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Maverick
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| helpful
Forum Junior
Topics: 4
Posts: 49
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Zaki seem to me correct with ICU care.
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| gballarino
Forum Senior
Topics: 12
Posts: 96
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also, if you wanna go a step further, you should prescribe rifampin as prophylaxis to his close contacts (did I read something about a family?)
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Guillermo Ballarino
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| zaki
Forum Guru
Topics: 92
Posts: 398
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backpity can u tell us the answer??
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Maverick
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| zaki
Forum Guru
Topics: 92
Posts: 398
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sorry bakpity , typing mistake
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Maverick
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