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Author6 Posts
  #1

A 53-year-old man develops acute, excruciating chest pain that radiates
to his back. En route to the emergency room, he becomes unresponsive,
and is pulseless on arrival. Resuscitation attempts are unsuccessful.
Autopsy reveals massive hemoperitoneum due to a ruptured aortic
dissection. There is a jagged intimal tear in the ascending aorta,
with a dissecting hematoma in the media, extending from the aortic
valve to the renal arteries. Which feature of this scenario most
strongly suggests hypertension as the cause of the aortic dissection?
A. Adventitial tear above renal arteries
B. Dissection through media
C. Involvement of major aortic branches
D. Origin at ascending aorta
E. Rapid exsanguination

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fight possessed

  #2

Chalenging q, I go with B

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The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #3

D

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"El respeto al derecho ajeno es la paz" Benito Juarez

  #4

it is D

The two most common causes of aortic dissection are hypertension and atherosclerosis. An important distinction between the two is that hypertensive dissections generally originate in the ascending aorta, at an intimal surface free of atherosclerosis.
Dissection secondary to atherosclerosis is typically the consequence of a ruptured aortic aneurysm, which originates in the abdominal aorta at the iliac bifurcation. Dissections due to both hypertension and atherosclerosis generally course through the wall within the media (choice B). They both can involve the entire length of the aorta, and may rupture anywhere along its course (choices A and C). Well recognized sequelae of dissections include rupture through the adventitia, compromise of major arterial branches or the aortic valve, cardiac tamponade, and rapid exsanguination (choice E).



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  #5

thanku. great info vallia.

  #6

cool









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