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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author7 Posts
  #1

I know this question has been discussed, but I couldn't find the thread. So if y'all wouldn't mind discussing this, it would be appreciated. I believe the general consensus was 25%, but does anyone know the right answer and why?


A 50-year-old man who has had a myocardial infarct was subsequently diagnosed as having familial hypercholesterolemia, an autosomal dominant disorder. His son has not been tested for hypercholesterolemia. What is the probability that the patient's granddaughter, through his son, will have hypercholesterolemia?

A) Less than 1%

B) 10%

C) 25%

D) 33%

E) 50%

  #2

i think its 25%

  #3

25%

patient 100%-->son 50%..>son's daughter 25%


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  #4

C

  #5

The grandfather is Aa
This means that the son has a 50% chance of having A.

Which means that the grandaughter has a 50% chance of getting A from her dad....or 50% of 50%...hence 25%.

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  #6

25%

  #7

25%

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