humpf!!
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A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, who is Rh-negative, delivers a full-term Rh-positive neonate The mother is given prophylactic anti-Rho(D) immune globulin immediately post partum. During her second pregnancy 3 years later, she is screened each trimester for Rho(D) antibodies. An indirect antiglobulin test done during the third trimester indicates the presence of anti-Rho(D) antibodies in her serum. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for the occurrence of these maternal antibodies?
A) Anamnestic production of maternal anti-Rho(D) immunoglobulin
B) Intrauterine transplacental fetal-maternal hemorrhages during the second pregnancy
C) Residual circulating prophylactic anti-Rho(D) immunoglobulin
D) Transplacental passage of fetallgG anti-Rho(D) antibodies
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| mdx
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B ?
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| sridevibandaru24
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A?
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| robin082006
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A
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The Key to Succeed is Patience.
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| mitty
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B
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He will make it happen.
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| drhouston
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B
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| guangyu
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A
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| humpf!!
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those of you who put A - please explain...
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| humpf!!
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those of you who put A - please explain...
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| Cedrick
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Choice B
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| fongch
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I go with B. It should be assumed that these antibodies arise during the second pregnancy.
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| me007
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She was given prophilactic anti-Rh globin, which is antibodies attach to Rh+RBCs and prevent their acting as sensitising agent.
She had not anti-Rh+ ab after first pregnancy and during 1-2 trimester of 2nd.
Means something happens during 3rd trimester and answer is B.
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| ManuNastai
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B
what the hell does A mean? that she synthetised Abs while talking to you?
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