DrVirgo
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12. A 54-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus well controlled with oral hypoglycemic agents comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of swelling in her left knee. She tells the physician that her knee is very stiff when she awakens in the morning and at bedtime. The pain and stiffness worsen with exertion. Low-dose ibuprofen results in incomplete relief. Which of the following best explains why a larger dose of ibuprofen is more appropriate?
A) The anti-inflammatory dose is nearly twice the analgesic dose
B) The drug is excreted at a fast rate because of renal complications of diabetes mellitus
C) Increasing the dose extends the half-life of the drug
D) Menopausal women metabolize the drug at a faster rate than premenopausal women
E) Oral hypoglycemic agents interfere with protein binding of ibuprofen
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| yasmeen
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b?
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| r_albayunen
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a?
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| DrVirgo
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Please explain why you think your answer is right.
Thanks
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| krsna
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i will go with A....anti-inflamatory doses r higher than analgesic doses.
in renal impairement the drugs of doses r ususally lowered as they r less excreted..so i wouldnt choseB
pls correct me if wrong
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| r_albayunen
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thats why i choosed A
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| drpkaur
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A
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| DrVirgo
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I agree with A. 
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| Cedrick
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does it not interfere with oral hypoglycemic ?
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| Cedrick
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maybe not
thanks
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| robin082006
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E
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