determine
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A 54-year-old man presents with extreme pain and swelling of the left middle finger. Four days earlier, he suffered a small puncture wound to the volar aspect of the finger at the level of the distal flexor crease. Passive extension of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints severely aggravates his symptoms. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1) pulp space infection
2) cellulitis
3) mid-palmar space infection
4) septic tenosynovitis
5) septic arthritis distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint
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| yasmeen
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4
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| achilles
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septic tenosynovitis
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| Rasul
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4
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