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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author12 Posts
  #1

A 20-year-old female from another city is visiting her sister, who is one of your patients. Within the past 24 hours she has been experiencing a constellation of symptoms that include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, lightheadedness, sweating, and diffuse muscle aches. She has never been hospitalized, and her only current medication is an oral contraceptive that she has taken for several years. For the past 2 months she has been taking 75 mg of amitriptyline (Elavil) per day for a mild depression. Because she was coming to visit her sister and felt "so good" she discontinued the antidepressant 3 or 4 days ago, and does not wish to take it anymore. <?xml:namespace prefix = o ns = "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" />

Which one of the following pharmacologic agents would provide the best management for her clinical problem?













Sertraline (Zoloft)





Venlafaxine (Effexor)





Trazodone (Desyrel)





Prochlorperazine (Compazine)





Benztropine mesylate (Cogentin)


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life is reality without an eraser

  #2

ZOLOFT

  #3

e?

  #4

venlafaxine??

  #5

sertaline(zoloft)

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" it's not whether you get knocked down, it's whether you get up"
" i have miles to go before i sleep "

  #6

e is correct

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life is reality without an eraser

  #7

good question. thanks srf....could you pls post the explanation for this one.

___________________
" it's not whether you get knocked down, it's whether you get up"
" i have miles to go before i sleep "

  #8

explainshaking headdisapprovalsad

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If you think you can You can! If you think you cant you are right again!!

  #9

is it because amytrytiline is anticholinergic and without the drug cholinergic manifestations are now occurring?

  #10

explaination by cerebral is correct.

___________________
life is reality without an eraser

  #11

Good question and the xplanation is correct

  #12

e







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