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Author8 Posts
  #1

A woman with preeclampsia in early active phase stage I labor has been treated with magnesium sulfate, 4 g slow intravenous push, followed with a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate, 1.5 g/hr. The patient is hyporeflexic. Despite this therapy, the patient experiences a persistent, generalized seizure.
Which one of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

Diazepam (Valium), 10 mg intravenously, slowly; repeat if necessary
Magnesium sulfate, 2 g intravenously, slowly
Phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) intravenously, at a rate not to exceed 50 mg/min or a maximum dose of 100 mg
Phenobarbital, 400-800 mg intravenously, slowly


___________________
life is reality without an eraser

  #2

Magnesium sulfate, 2 g intravenously, slowly

  #3

agree nod

  #4

agree

___________________
" it's not whether you get knocked down, it's whether you get up"
" i have miles to go before i sleep "

  #5

why would we not give valium

  #6

Prophylaxy -> Mg,

Seizure -> diazepam




  #7

but despite this therapy, the patient experiences a persistent, generalized seizure.


  #8

magnesium sulfate







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