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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author8 Posts
  #1

A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a 7-day history of increasing pain in the perianal region. On examination, he has an indurated, reddened and very tender area, extending from the anal verge out into the left buttock. His temperature is 38 °C. Which one of the following is the next most appropriate step in management?

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1) order a CT scan of the pelvis



2) prescribe ciprofloxacin and metronidazole



3) prescribe analgesics and sitz baths



4) order a barium enema



5) incise the indurated area


  #2

5

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  #3

ischiorectal abscess - incise and drain immediately - 5.

  #4

yup its 5- incision and drainage

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  #5

agree with 5 as the best next step. Then you could give 2) at discharge.


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  #6

yes its 5.

  #7

anal abscess=I & D

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  #8

Very common presentation in ER: anal abscess

Send them to the surgeons


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