phuluong2k
Forum Fanatic
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You see a 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 for her prenatal checkup at 38 weeks gestation. She complains of severe headaches and epigastric pain. She has had an uneventful pregnancy to date and had a normal prenatal examination 2 weeks ago. Her blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A urinalysis shows 2+ protein; she has gained 5 pounds in the last week, and has 2+ pitting edema of her legs.
The most appropriate treatment at this point would be
a. strict bed rest at home and reexamination within 48 hours
b. admitting the patient to the hospital for bed rest and frequent monitoring of blood pressure, weight, and proteinuria
c. admitting the patient to the hospital for bed rest and monitoring, and beginning hydralazine (Apresoline) to maintain blood pressure below 140/90 mm Hg
d. admitting the patient to the hospital, treating with parenteral magnesium sulfate, and planning immediate delivery either vaginally or by cesarean section<?xml:namespace prefix = o ns = "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" />
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| doctor81
Forum Elite
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d ?
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| nelia
Forum Junior
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 yes I would go for d.- severe preeclampsia
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| arpit
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d
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| phuluong2k
Forum Fanatic
Topics: 714
Posts: 2,008
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You are right, headache and severe epigastric pain are indicators
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