pearljam59
Forum Guru
Topics: 120
Posts: 273
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A 30-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, comes to the physician for an infertility evaluation. She has had amenorrhea for the past year. Menarche occurred at age 12 years, and pubertal development was normal. Menstrual periods initially occurred at regular intervals, but then became erratic after the delivery of her child 4 years ago. Examination is normal except for atrophy of the vaginal wall. A pregnancy test is negative, and a trial of progesterone does not induce menstruation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
B. Gonadal dysgenesis 45,X (Turner syndrome)
C. 21-Hydroxylase deficiency
D. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
E. Premature ovarian failure
F. Pure gonadal dysgenesis (46,XY)
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| skyhigh
Forum Guru
Topics: 105
Posts: 561
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E?
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| leen
Forum Guru
Topics: 79
Posts: 294
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E?
thanks
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| druas
Forum Elite
Topics: 47
Posts: 319
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E...progesterone challenge test is negative which in the presence of ovarian fuction would have led to break through bleeding. .Correct me if i m wrong.
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| robin082006
Forum Hero
Topics: 471
Posts: 5,125
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Not sure but E is the best choice
___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.
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| yasmeen
Forum Guru
Topics: 67
Posts: 936
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e is definitely right choice absent menses for whole year points to premature ovarian failure and vaginal atrophy is due to dec estrogen since she had a pregnancy b cant be true which has its own features and primary ammenorrohea
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