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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author6 Posts
  #1

A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent, severe, sharp abdominal pain that occurs primarily after meals and lasts about 30 to 60 minutes. There is no fever, diarrhea, or weight loss. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Ascending cholangitis
C. Biliary colic
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
E. Sclerosing cholangitis

shocked

  #2

C..looks like biliary colics after meals due to release of CCKsad

  #3

yea ı think so biliary colics



  #4

C?

  #5

I go with C too


___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #6

c is the only reasonable ans







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