pearljam59 Forum Guru

Topics: 120 Posts: 273
| | 03/20/06 - 12:21 PM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent, severe, sharp abdominal pain that occurs primarily after meals and lasts about 30 to 60 minutes. There is no fever, diarrhea, or weight loss. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms? A. Acute cholecystitis B. Ascending cholangitis C. Biliary colic D. Primary biliary cirrhosis E. Sclerosing cholangitis

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| druas Forum Elite
Topics: 47 Posts: 325
| | 03/20/06 - 12:29 PM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
C..looks like biliary colics after meals due to release of CCK
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| sosikan Forum Junior

Topics: 3 Posts: 78
| | 03/20/06 - 12:41 PM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
yea ı think so biliary colics
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| doc179 Forum Guru
Topics: 67 Posts: 1,217
| | 03/20/06 - 11:09 PM  
 
   
 
|   #4 |
C?
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| robin082006 Forum Hero

Topics: 471 Posts: 5,125
| | 03/20/06 - 11:54 PM  
 
   
 
|   #5 |
I go with C too
___________________ The Key to Succeed is Patience.
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| yasmeen Forum Guru
Topics: 68 Posts: 940
| | 03/21/06 - 06:03 AM  
 
   
 
|   #6 |
c is the only reasonable ans
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