frontal
Forum Guru
Topics: 53
Posts: 421
|
A 53-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife because of headache and visual changes. Approximately 3 hours ago, he had the acute onset of an extremely severe posterior headache that was non-radiating but was associated with nausea and vomiting. This headache subsided, but over the past hour he has developed mild neck stiffness and pain on flexion of his neck. The patient is not cooperative, so no additional history is known; however, his wife states that he was feeling well until recently and has no allergies. The patient appears moderately uncomfortable and is complaining of the worst headache he has ever experienced. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his symptoms?
A. Arteriovenous malformation
B. Cerebellar bleed
C. Putamenal bleed
D. Ruptured berry aneurysm
E. Thalamic bleed
|
| jvo_md
Forum Senior
Topics: 22
Posts: 189
|
D. BERRY ANEURISM
|
| lakme
Forum Junior
Topics: 10
Posts: 47
|
its D
|
| jvo_md
Forum Senior
Topics: 22
Posts: 189
|
Something funny 
|
| frontal
Forum Guru
Topics: 53
Posts: 421
|
Well mister md, it's surely funny and apt for the Forum Lounge. Apparently you're a new kiddie on the block and didn't know it. The forum moderators are probably gonna shift the post, unless of course you choose to discuss what the next course of action should be and who should take the action- the doc or the patient. (Kidding).
You've both got the answer right. Well done! (I didn't know it was supposed to be that easy )
|
| jvo_md
Forum Senior
Topics: 22
Posts: 189
|
Sorry for the funny comic...i thought it was good to unstress a little bit, not gonna happen again.
the janitor is the chief in that case...he can even present that case in the Journal of Medical Janitors Association.
The answer of the question was easy...harder could be better so i can ask why is a choise or the other.
|
|
| |
| | | | | | |
Similar forum topics