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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author6 Posts
  #1

A 33-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the ED with complaints of fever and arthralgias. On visual inspection, there is no obvious swelling of the extremities. Which of the following joints are at greatest risk
for infection in this patient?

(A) Atlanto-axial-occipital joint

(B) Metacarpal and interphalangeal joints

(C) Sternoclavicular, sacroiliac, and intervertebral joints

(D) Elbow and shoulder joints

(E) None of the above; all joints are equally affected

  #2

Answer C: http://www.vh.org/adult/provider/familymedicine/F...

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  #3

Thanks

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  #4

thanks Maty

  #5

itīs C nod




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  #6

it just says may cause and not that it is the commonest site!!!!

anyway good article and worth reading

thanx


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