doc4life Forum Guru
Topics: 131 Posts: 240
| | 12/22/03 - 11:42 PM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
A 33-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the ED with complaints of fever and arthralgias. On visual inspection, there is no obvious swelling of the extremities. Which of the following joints are at greatest risk for infection in this patient? (A) Atlanto-axial-occipital joint (B) Metacarpal and interphalangeal joints (C) Sternoclavicular, sacroiliac, and intervertebral joints (D) Elbow and shoulder joints (E) None of the above; all joints are equally affected
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| Ouli Maty Forum Elite
Topics: 33 Posts: 275
| | 01/10/04 - 10:39 AM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
Answer C: http://www.vh.org/adult/provider/familymedicine/F...
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| Medicine Guy Forum Junior

Topics: 11 Posts: 68
| | 02/18/04 - 10:36 AM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
Thanks
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| meg Forum Guru
Topics: 62 Posts: 806
| | 02/25/04 - 12:48 PM  
 
   
 
|   #4 |
thanks Maty
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| chemamr Moderator and PGY1

Topics: 703 Posts: 4,441
| | 06/10/05 - 07:42 PM  
 
   
 
|   #5 |
itīs C
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| drkpp Forum Guru

Topics: 45 Posts: 882
| | 08/01/05 - 04:39 PM  
 
   
 
|   #6 |
it just says may cause and not that it is the commonest site!!!! anyway good article and worth reading thanx
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