DrVirgo
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30. A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of severe pain that radiates from his right thigh to the bottom of his right foot. He has a 1-year history of chronic low back pain. Use of ibuprofen has not relieved the pain. Sensation to pinprick is decreased over the lateral aspect and plantar surface of the right foot. There is diminished strength of right foot plantar flexion. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A) Intervertebral disc herniation
B) Sacrococcygeal teratoma
C) Sacroiliitis
D) Transverse myelitis
E) Vertebral body compression fracture
F) Vitamin B12(cobalamin) deficiency
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| endocrine
Forum Senior
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i wld go for a
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| suv
Forum Elite
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my answer would be vertebral body compression fracture 
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| cyra
Moderator
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A
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| druas
Forum Elite
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sciatica pain...i would say A..
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| doc179
Forum Guru
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I would also go with A
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| vanshita
Forum Guru
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a?
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