malinda
Forum Guru
Topics: 162
Posts: 654
|
A 32-year-old female presents with amenorrhea for the past several months. She also states that there is a
"watery secretion" coming from both her nipples. On examination, there is a non-puerperal, watery secretion that
does not contain white or red blood cells. Laboratory examination reveals elevated serum prolactin levels. Which
of the following medications most likely caused this patient's signs and symptoms?
A. Captopril
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Indomethacin
D. Nortriptyline
E. Warfarin
___________________
I CAN DO IT.
|
| sarika
Forum Guru
Topics: 195
Posts: 1,200
|
nortriptyline?
|
| malinda
Forum Guru
Topics: 162
Posts: 654
|
___________________
I CAN DO IT.
|
| tolito
Forum Fanatic
Topics: 119
Posts: 2,174
|
how???
___________________
It has been a looooong hard journey but I am inches away from my destination...
|
| usmle99
Forum Junior
Topics: 4
Posts: 49
|
Nortriptyline: Gynecomastia in the male, breast enlargement and galactorrhea in the female; changes in libido, impotence; testicular swelling; hyper- or hypoglycemia; syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH (antidiuretic hormone). this is from google search
|
| tolito
Forum Fanatic
Topics: 119
Posts: 2,174
|
thanks.
___________________
It has been a looooong hard journey but I am inches away from my destination...
|
|
| |
| | | | | | |
