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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author6 Posts
  #1

54-yr woman with well controlled type 2 DM has 2-week of left knee swelling, very stiff in the morning and bedtime. Low-dose ibuprofen incompletely relieves. Why a larger dose is more appropriate?
A. The anti-inflammatory dose is about twice the analgesic dose
B. The drug id excreted at a fast rate because of renal complications of DM
C. Increasing the dose extends the t1/2 of the drug
D. Mensopausal woman metabolizes the drug faster than premenopausal
E. Oral hypoglycemic agents interfere with protein binding of this drug


  #2

This question is not formulated well or I do not understand it correctly-If you increase dose of ibuprofen it will kick oral hypoglycemics out of the binding sites on plasma proteins and may lead to hypoglycemia which could be fatal.So,what to do?In that case,you should have more drug bound to albumin.So what happenes with free drug concentration?

If I had this on an exam I think I would go with an A as you need to have high dose for an antiinflamatory effect.


  #3

i think the answer is E

  #4

Iboprufen is like Asprin with 3 dose ranges :

Low-dose : anticoagulation
Medium-dose: analgesic & antipyretic
High-dose : Anti-inflamamtory


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  #5

so the ans is A. THANX dragonfly...

  #6

you're welcome smiling face


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