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Author4 Posts
  #1

A 72-year-old female is brought to the emergency room after the development of periorbital edema, a maculopapular rash on her chest, and a fever of 101°F (38.3°C) . Laboratory examination reveals a blood urea nitrogen of 77 mg/dL and a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows mild proteinuria and eosinophils, but is negative for glucose and ketones. The patient's past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes, and osteoarthritis. Which of the following medications most likely caused the appearance of her signs and symptoms?

A. Acarbose

B. Clonidine

C. Ibuprofen

D. Metformin

E. Metoprolol



___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #2

C. Ibuprofen drug induced nephritis common with NSAIDS


  #3

Tubulointerstitial nephritis due to NSAIDS...C.

___________________
Courage does not always ROAR. Sometimes courage is the quiet voice at the end of the day saying, "I will try again tomorrow" - Mary Anne Radmacher

  #4

1)Acarabose directly inh. glucose in intestine (not really used much) 2)Clonidine is the lovely A2 agonist that inhibits symp. out flow from the medulla, also can inh. Nor epi.3)metformin enhances the hepatic response to insulin. 4)metoprolol has the negative chrono and inotropic effect at b1 via inh.cAMP.

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