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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author4 Posts
  #1

A 54year old man comes into Emergency presenting with the classic features of shock. He is hypotensive, febrile and uncounscious. You are lead to believe that the shock is caused by a pathogen. Upon doing the relevant test you found out the organism is catalase positive. You then treat the patient appropriately with methicillin, but he does not respond. What is the most likely cause of his resistance.

A. Beta-Lactamase production
B. Coagulase forming fibrin clot
C. Plasmid
D. Mutation in PBP
E. Production of IL-1 & TNF


  #2

The shock is produced by S.aureus.Penicillin resistance is due to Beta-Lactamase production, but Methicillin and Nafcillin resistance is due to altered penicillin binding proteins (PBP) .

So,the answer is D.


  #3

thats correct. Good one..

  #4

nod...its due to mutation in penicillin binding proteins

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