skyhigh
Forum Guru
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A 28 yr old woman, gravida 1, para 0 at 12 wks gestation presents with painless vaginal bleeding. Her BP is 160/95 and there is 3+ proteinuria and the uterus is too large for gestational age. Which of the following the most likely diagnosis?
a.Gestational diabetes
b. abruptio placenta
c. molar pregnancy
d. placenta previa
e. twin placenta
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| roopashri
Forum Elite
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C . molar
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| skyhigh
Forum Guru
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can you explain , plz
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| roopashri
Forum Elite
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if u see signs of pre eclampsia in first trimester think of molar
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| msyamp
Forum Fanatic
Topics: 60
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yup. molar pregnancy is a tuor where you have vey high HCG and also has high propensity to develop Preg induced hyprtension and preeclampsia . especially if you see a person with hypertension and proteinuria in early preg(normally PIH. preeclampsia .eclampsia are in late pregnancy)
it would be A MOLE either complete partial or chorioca.
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