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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author11 Posts
  #1

A 45 year old woman with a history or mitral stenosis and a chronic arrhythmia died suddenly at home. At autopsy, a hemorrhagic lesion was noted at the periphery of the temporal lobe. which of the following explains the mechanism for the patients cns disease?

a. hemorrhaghic infarction
b. intracerebral hematoma
c. arteriovenous malformation
d. malignant tumor of astrocytes
e. thrombosis of internal carotid artery

plz ans. with explanation. thanks

  #2

?A. (patient was on Warfarin/Coumadin for AF)

___________________
Courage does not always ROAR. Sometimes courage is the quiet voice at the end of the day saying, "I will try again tomorrow" - Mary Anne Radmacher

  #3

any other explanations?

  #4

how abt a simple embolus? or is tht too simple?

  #5

correct, embolus in left atrium-therefore hemorrhagic infarct.
ans. A

but, i am not clear about the complication of "thrombosis of internal carotid artery? what can happen. thanks.




  #6

TIA's probably...wch might ulitmately end up with a embolus in the CoW.

Or rather past CoW into the MCA..


Edited by drk1980 on 01/19/06 - 04:11 PM

  #7

sorry, what's CoW?

  #8

SORRY...circle of willis rolling eyes

  #9

well doesnt it go like this that in the brain u can get both hemorrhagic infarction, and pale infarct, if its an embolus its hemorrhagic infarction....'

correct me if i am wrong


  #10

ya hemorrhagic in embolus and pale in tatherosclerotics.

  #11

yes, A..







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