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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author9 Posts
  #1

A 4-year-old girl with sickle cell disease presents to the emergency department with a temperature of 39.6 C (103.2 F). Other than irritability, the physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory evaluations reveal a white blood cell count of 18,200/mm3, with 88% polymorphonuclear neutrophils, 10% lymphocytes, and 2% monocytes, and a hemoglobin of 7.6 g/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Observe the child pending blood culture results
B. Administer amoxicillin orally
C. Administer ceftazidime and gentamicin intravenously
D. Administer ceftriaxone intravenously
E. Administer vancomycin and gentamicin intravenously

  #2

c ?

  #3

A

  #4

D, for H. influenza, Strep etc in aplenic patient

C is for pseudomonas

  #5

what about Salmonella??...isnt it a common bug in SC

___________________
Courage does not always ROAR. Sometimes courage is the quiet voice at the end of the day saying, "I will try again tomorrow" - Mary Anne Radmacher

  #6

D. Administer ceftriaxone intravenously

___________________
"Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever." --Mahatma Gandhi

  #7

Samonella is in osteomyelitis, in this case I think of sepsis

  #8

so what is it ? ceftriaxone?

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  #9

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