phuluong2k
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47) A 24-year-old 2nd-year medical student presents to the student health clinic with complaints of chronic epigastric pain 1 week before taking Step 2 of the USMLE.
The patient has been awakened from sleep by epigastric pain at approximately 3 AM on several occasions. Ranitidine has improved his symptoms transiently.
Eating generally improves his symptoms for about 30 minutes, but is then followed by increased pain. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A. Diffuse gastric mucosal vasoconstriction
B. Gastrin-producing tumor
C. Infection or organism invading the antral mucosa
D. Organism colonizing the gastric antrum
E. Reduced gastrin release
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| DrS
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D. Organism colonizing the gastric antrum
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| ARJ
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D. Organism colonizing the gastric antrum
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"Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever." --Mahatma Gandhi
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| lucky
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what's thwedifference b/w c and d
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| phuluong2k
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It is D
But i confuse C too
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| DrS
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H. Pylori does not invade the gastric antrum
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| chemamr
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i guess itīs D.
but i know that there is an increase in pH in PUD when the disease is in the stomach, mainly. But i guess thatīs not enough to say itīs E, right? 
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