ARJ Forum Guru

Topics: 133 Posts: 792
| | 11/02/05 - 11:05 PM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
A 42-year-old, right-handed man has had a history of progressive speech difficulties and right hemiparesis for 5 months. He has had progressively severe headaches for the past 2 months, which are worse in the mornings. At the time of admission, he is confused and vomiting, and has blurred vision, papilledema, and diplopia. Shortly thereafter, his blood pressure increases to 190/110 mm Hg, and he develops bradycardia. Which of the following is most likely the significance of the hypertension and the bradycardia? a)The brain tumor has produced tentorial herniation b)The brain tumor is pressing on the hypothalamus c)The chronic subdural hematoma has ruptured d)The genesis of his symptoms is aortic dissection e) There is a near-terminal increase in intracranial pressure
___________________ "Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever." --Mahatma Gandhi
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| drkpp Forum Guru

Topics: 45 Posts: 882
| | 11/03/05 - 07:55 AM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
e. looks like cushings triad
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| Renegade Forum Elite
Topics: 18 Posts: 171
| | 11/03/05 - 03:21 PM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
e) Indeed
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| catmd Forum Senior
Topics: 7 Posts: 129
| | 11/03/05 - 05:06 PM  
 
   
 
|   #4 |
This is a classic case of how I screw up the q's. Yes -its E, and they're telling us that so going from there - I wonder hmmm, maybe its 1 step further, so it has to be Sx based - so maybe A?
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| lucky Forum Guru
Topics: 23 Posts: 505
| | 11/04/05 - 03:12 AM  
 
   
 
|   #5 |
A...
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| Diego Casali Forum Elite

Topics: 7 Posts: 232
| | 11/04/05 - 03:41 AM  
 
   
 
|   #6 |
I think the correct answer is E, because tentorial herniation would cause a more dramatic and rapid course.
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| chemamr Moderator and PGY1

Topics: 703 Posts: 4,441
| | 11/04/05 - 08:19 AM  
 
   
 
|   #7 |
i agree with E.
___________________ Any time something is written against me, I not only share the sentiment but feel I could do the job far better myself.
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| ARJ Forum Guru

Topics: 133 Posts: 792
| | 11/05/05 - 04:00 AM  
 
   
 
|   #8 |
The correct answer is E. The clinical picture is that of a brain tumor with increased intracranial pressure. However, the development of hypertension and bradycardia (Cushing's reflex) signifies that the brain has run out of compensatory mechanisms to minimize the intracranial pressure elevation generated by increased intracranial volume. When that point is reached, brain perfusion suffers and death is imminent. Choices A and B correctly identify the disease as a brain tumor, but assign an incorrect meaning to the hemodynamic changes. Tentorial herniation would lead to respiratory arrest. Pressure on the hypothalamus is not the reason for the Cushing's reflex. Choice C makes a wrong diagnosis. Chronic subdural hematomas are seen in very old or alcoholic patients, where they press on the cortex-but do not "rupture" and create a sudden catastrophe in that fashion. Aortic dissection (choice D) happens to hypertensive patients, but what they get is chest and back pain, not a long-standing neurologic picture as depicted here.
___________________ "Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever." --Mahatma Gandhi
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| chemamr Moderator and PGY1

Topics: 703 Posts: 4,441
| | 11/05/05 - 04:49 AM  
 
   
 
|   #9 |
good.
___________________ Any time something is written against me, I not only share the sentiment but feel I could do the job far better myself.
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