phuluong2k Forum Fanatic

Topics: 714 Posts: 2,008
| | 10/03/05 - 03:01 PM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
It is discussed some where in this forum
|
| ARJ Forum Guru

Topics: 133 Posts: 792
| | 10/03/05 - 08:46 PM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
Thanks phuluong2k for the explanation.
___________________ "Live as if you were to die tomorrow. Learn as if you were to live forever." --Mahatma Gandhi
|
| phuluong2k Forum Fanatic

Topics: 714 Posts: 2,008
| | 10/03/05 - 11:14 PM  
 
   
 
|   #4 |
You're welcome 
|
| alenka Forum Elite

Topics: 22 Posts: 330
| | 10/04/05 - 09:38 PM  
 
   
 
|   #5 |
in the matter of fact-it's called-kaplan question.
|
| lucky Forum Guru
Topics: 23 Posts: 505
| | 12/02/05 - 11:16 AM  
 
   
 
|   #6 |
arj i 'll try to explain it as best as possible but i dont know how to draw a 2 by 2 table here. anyway here goes. sens 80% specif90% prev is 10% lets take a sample size of 1000 if prevelance is 10 means 100 have disease .on a 22 table write 100 on + side. now since sens is 80 then 80 out of 100 r TP and 20 r FN on the left side of table. specif is 90.so out of the 900 well people 810 will be TN and 90 FP. on the right side of table. now ppv is the top of the table that is all positives. so 80+90 is 170 ppv=80/170=47
|
|
| |
| | | | | |