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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author5 Posts
  #1

why is the honey period seen only in type I DM and not in type II?

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  #2

it's because of pathogenesis of type 1 starts right from early childhood and there is progressive b-cell immune mediated destruction in graded manner. In type 2, insulin production is normal and there in no significant decrease in functional insulin secretion despite stress attack in childhood (see attached figure)..
hope it'll help your curiosity.
good luck

p.s.:Attached image is captured from Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine 14th Edition CD-ROM


Attached Files:
ScreenShot001.jpg (107 KB, 19 downloads)
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  #3

in type 2 DM we have insulin resistance and that develops gradually. so just prior to the onset of illness stress may result in greater demand of insulin that wont be met by the pancreas as it is already working at its full capacity... this is how i think we can have honey moon period in type 2 as well... correct me if i got it wrong somewhere

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  #4

Hi Mani,

I guess (though am not sure) that insulin resistance is not progressive. It rather fluctuates - increases and decreases depending on various conditions. Secondly, we rarely see a type II DM patient in the initial stages of the pathogenesis.

That is why when we first diagnose a type II DM patient we have to check for retinopathy, nephropathy, etc. But a type I DM patient manitfests very early in the course and hence u dont have to worry about diabetic complications for atleast the first few years.

Amit Joshi


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Criticisms welcome

  #5

i agree with what u said amitjosh but u see theoretically there would be a stage in type 2 DM when there will not be overt disease but there is insulin resistance being compensated by the increased insulin production by pancreas. At this stage we can expect to see something equivalent to honey moon period in type 1. thats why i m getting curious why dont we see it in type 2?

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