mash
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A 40-year-old woman is found to have a 1- to 2-cm, slightly tender cystic mass in her breast; she has no perceptible axillary adenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Reassurance and reexamination in the immediate postmenstrual period
B. Immediate excisional biopsy
C. Aspiration of the mass with cytologic analysis
D. Fluoroscopically guided needle localization biopsy
E. Mammography and reevaluation of options with new information
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| dev
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answer is A??
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| tamriko
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C.
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| mani
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C
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| mash
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ans is C
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I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand.
--Confucius
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| bluesky
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it may be E?
E. Mammography and reevaluation of options with new information
In women older than 30 yo, mammogram should precede to identify and sample all suspicious areas and not only the palpable ones.
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| drchahbar
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the best answer is C you have already a mass make a citology then do ct scan
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| muchabaiwa
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The answer is "c'
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