linnyc
Forum Newbie
Topics: 7
Posts: 23
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hi guys...this is a question i ran across on UW that I had a question on...i'm mentioning it's a UW question because i don't want to screw up anyone's scores if you're taking UW for assessment purposes...anyway, usually, after reading the explanation, i understand where my mistake was, but i don't really agree with the explanation in this case...maybe you guys can tell me what you think the answer is and why...i'll post the explanation in the reply a little later:
53 yo female admitted to ER w/ hypotension. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring is established. BP measured by intra-arterial method is 72/46 mmHg. HR 120, regular. PCWP estimated by Swan Ganz cath is 6 mmHg. MVo2 (mixed venous oxygen conc.) is 16 vol % (N=15.5 vol%). Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's condition?
a. cardiogenic shock
b. volume depletion
c. septic shock
d. volume overload
e. right ventricular infart
f. hemorrhagic shock
g. neurogenic shock
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| drshabs
Forum Elite
Topics: 61
Posts: 205
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septic shock(only condition in option with normal mvo2) with low pcwp
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