dimps
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A 55-year-old woman with well-controlled hypertension comes to the emergency department because of a 1-week history of low-grade fevers, fatigue, severe headache, and mild neck stiffness. There has been no relief of her headache with ibuprofen or acetaminophen. Her temperature is 38.0 C (100.7 F), blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse is 103/min, and respirations are 13/min. Physical examination reveals mild photophobia. She does not have nuchal rigidity and her neurological examination is non-focal. The remainder of her physical examination is normal. Concerned about a possible central nervous system infection, you perform a lumbar puncture. The results show:
The most appropriate management of this patient is to
A. administer amphotericin B, intravenously
B. administer ceftriaxone, intravenously
C. administer ceftriaxone and ampicillin, intravenously
D. administer vancomycin, intravenously
E. provide intravenous fluids and analgesics
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hi how r u
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| ELM
Forum Guru
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Posts: 936
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The result show what? :o
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ELM
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