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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author9 Posts
  #1

Does anyone here know how to solve this problem?

A 55 year old man visits his primary care physician with a complaint of urinary infrequency. Examination finds a 1 cm nodule on his prostate gland. The physician orders a prostate specific antigen serum test. By common standards, a PSY level greater than 4ng/ml is considered abnormal. Using this standard this test has a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 90%. A recently published epidemiologic article found that in a cross-sectional study, 10% of men of this age have prostate cancer. The result on teh patient's PSA is 7ng/ml. What is yoru best estimate of the likelihood that this man actually has prostate cancer?
a) 13%
b) 25%
c) 36%
d) 47%
e) 58%

  #2

Positive Predictive Value - 47%

  #3

We discussed about this very q on IM forum, it's under the head of ''It's an Epid Q'' posted by me. Check it out.

___________________
ELM

  #4

==>TP+FN=10
sen=80%
==> TP/TP+FN=80/100==>TP=8
so, FN =2


TN+FP=90
specificity is 90%
==>TN/TN+FP=90/100==> TN=81
==>FP=9

[/b]how did you get TN=81 and FP=9???



  #5

==>TP+FN=10
sen=80%
==> TP/TP+FN=80/100==>TP=8
so, FN =2


TN+FP=90
specificity is 90%
==>TN/TN+FP=90/100==> TN=81
==>FP=9

[/b]how did you get TN=81 and FP=9???



  #6

TN/TN+FP=90/100

TN+FP=90
so, TN=90/100(TN+FP) ==> TN=90/100*90 =81

if TN+FP=90 ==> FP=90-81 = 9

___________________
I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand.
--Confucius

  #7

Please bear with me here:

how did you get TN+FP=90???

if TN/TN+FP = 90/100, shouldn't TN+FP=100???

or did you account for the prevalence of 10%?

  #8

suppose we screen 100 people,
prev is 10% so, 10 out of 100 are diseased i.e TP+FN=10

==>healthy people are 100-10=90 i.e TN+FP=90

specificity=90%
TN/TN+FP =90/100
so, TN=90/100(TN+FP) ==> TN=90/100*90 =81

___________________
I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand.
--Confucius

  #9

thanks so much mash!







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