Wyoming Sioux
Forum Newbie
Topics: 4
Posts: 9
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A 45-year-old man suddenly loses consciousness and falls to the ground. He has been previously healthy and has been on no medications. There is no obvious evidence of trauma. An electrocardiogram reveals wide complex tachycardia at a rate of 300 beats per minute. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
A. Obtain vital signs
B. Administer a bolus of intravenous lidocaine
C. Administer a thrombolytic agent
D. Perform asynchronous cardioversion
E. Perform synchronous cardioversion
The correct answer is D. The patient is in ventricular tachycardia and is hemodynamically unstable as apparent from the loss of consciousness. He should be emergently cardioverted asynchronously with 200 joules of energy initially.
Another Kaplan question. Is this a mistake? Checked other sources and they talk about synchronized cardioversion for unstable v tach. Even the Kaplan notes mention this.
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| tuesday
Forum Senior
Topics: 7
Posts: 207
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This is a good question. I remember fr. the Kaplan lecturethat its asynchronous cardioversion for such pt. bec. he was prev. healthy.
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| zaki
Forum Guru
Topics: 92
Posts: 398
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well if the patient have no pulse its called pulseless ventricular tachycardia and its manage exactly the same as u mange ventricular fibrillation.
but if the patient have pulse even though he have serious sign ie unstable VT the shock should be sync cardioversion is advice
this is according to the AHA guidlines
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Maverick
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