meghana jadhav
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if prevalance of the haemophilia is ...1/100.of affected males...
what will be prevalance of affected females????
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megha
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| mani
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will u please it a bit more clear that what u mean by "1/100 of affected males"??
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| Malaysian
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if 1/100 of males have hemophilia then it means the prevalence of the gene is 1/100 too.
For a female to be inflicted it needs to be 1/100*1/100 and so it should be 1/10000
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| meghana jadhav
Forum Elite
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u r right malysian
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megha
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| mani
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meghana, that answer is rite if the wording of question were "if prevalance of the haemophilia is 1/100 in males,what will be prevalance of affected females?"
there was an additional word of "affected males" in ur wording that created the confusion. i hope im rite in guessing the wording u wanted to put here
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| meghana jadhav
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yes mani u r right...i am so sorry for cutting short the q....it created confusion
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