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In a study question a patient has a hypothalamic amenorhea with normal levels of FSH and LH. This make no sense to me for 2 reasons:
1) If they have a hypothalamic insufficiency, why do they have normal FSH and LH?
2) If they have normal FSH and LH, why do they have amenorrhea?
Good question, I too am interested in this topic. However I believe that what we call eugonadotropic hypogonadism (I.e. normal fsh and lh levels) suggests disorders such as PCOS, adult onset CAH, ovarian tumors, hyperprolactinemia or hypothyrodism. It may also be caused by an anatomic defect. Wheras hypothalamic amenorrhea is more often associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, but they can also have. Normal fsh and lh levels, what the exact reason for this is I don't know, maybe it is loss of the physiological cyclicity.
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