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Ive learned that a complete h-mole has a higher incidence of a lutein cyst than a partial mole. (this is because of the higher hCG perhaps?)
so.. my assumption is that..
incomplete -> cytotrophoblast
complete -> cytotrophoblast + syncytiotrophoblast
(since syncytiotrophoblast is where hCG is secreted from)
is this assumption correct??
and if this is the case.. is there a reason why ?? why a incomplete h-mole is this way? the only difference i know of is that
partial -> 1egg + 2sperms -> triploid
complete -> 2sperms -> diploid
thank you for your time
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Partial Mole vs. Complete Mole
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