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Author13 Posts
  #1

Q A 55 year old woman presents to the ER because of chest pain .The pain ,which has lasted 3 hrs ,is substernal & dull in nature ,with no relation to respiration or position .The pain does not radiate & is accompanied by weakness ,lightheadedness & nausea .She has recieved oxygen ,aspirin ,a continuous infusion of nitroglycerine & a beta blocker .Her chest xray is normal & her ECG is remarkable for inverted T waves in lead ii ,iii,& avF .which of the following is the most important next step in management.?

a..nifedipin
b..iv heparin
c..iv thrombolytic therapy
d..cardiac catheterization
e..PTCA

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hi how r u

  #2

is it C ?

  #3

b..iv heparin

  #4

b
Indication for thrombolysis include 2 of the foll 3
1. chest pain >20min
2. ST elevation of 1mm in 2 conseq leads or new onset BBB
3. Elevated cardiac enzymes

the question only mentions 1.... chest pain so i dont think we can thrombolyse her

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It is not your aptitude but your attitude that determines your altitude in life

  #5

Mocherla

Could it be d ???

  #6

It is B.

  #7

B.... IV heparin. to prevent thrombus formation. pt. is obviously having an AMI

  #8

Persistence pain after vasodilator is indication of Catheterization

so d is the answer

  #9

this Q is from Q book pg 73...they say it is unstable angina & so answer is B..heparin

but can anybody explain is this condition unstable angina or MI

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hi how r u

  #10

u r right b is the answer

  #11

this is unstable angina bec. of the presntn.. plus ekg findings w/c in this case is t wave inversion. Pt. is forming a clot that's why he needs heparin.

In MI, above sxs. , EKG is ST elevation but a clot has been formed so thrombolytics are needed to lyse the thrombus.

  #12

answer is heparin....

  #13

st depression..and flip T's are indications of ongoing ischemia. usually subendocardial in origin.

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