fana Forum Newbie
Topics: 2 Posts: 6
| | 08/28/04 - 01:12 PM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
Assuming the use of 2 standard deviations to establish reference interval of a test,what is the approximate percent chance that a normal person could have atleast one false -positive test result if two tests r ordered? A-5% B-10% C-15% D-20% E-30% Plz explain ur answer too.
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| docofthebigapple Forum Senior

Topics: 23 Posts: 174
| | 08/30/04 - 12:16 PM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
click link below to see the answer. http://www.prep4usmle.com/community/topic11381.ht...
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| amitjosh Forum Senior
Topics: 9 Posts: 116
| | 10/12/04 - 01:17 PM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
Hi Fana, Just consider one test first. The probability that the result is false positive is 5% since we are considering 2SDs. Hence the probabilty that the result is NOT FALSE POSITIVE is 95%. Now consider the second test alone. By the same token, the probability that the result is NOT FALSE POSITIVE is 95%. So, now since these are two independent tests, the probability that there is NO FALSE POSITIVE is 95% x 95% = 90.25% So, the probability that there is at AT LEAST FALSE POSITIVE is (100-90.25)% = 9.75% I tried to put it in the most simple words I could but am sorry if it still feels complicated.
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