|Prep for USMLE|
|         Forum      |     Resources||New Posts   |   Register   |   Login||»  |
A 30-year-old woman whose child has Duchenne muscular dystrophy comes to the physician because of progressive muscle weakness during the past 3 years. A muscle biopsy specimen obtained from the woman shows findings typical of hemizygous muscular dystrophy. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the findings in this patient?
Maternal chromosome constitution 45,X
she s a manifesting heterozygote...hence unfavorable lyonization
| Similar forum topics|
| Related resources|
Advertise | Support | Privacy | TOS | Premium | Contact