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40 Y.O f with low pretest probability presents with atypical chest pain. ECG 85% sense. 80% spec. PPV 25% NPV 86%. IF the test is negative, what is the probability that the patient has coronary heart disease ?
My confusion is i understand the answer from the question stem but i do not understand how they got 25% PPV and 86%NPV based on sens and spec of the test. Can someone explain this to me. Its a question from Uworld.
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