bm Forum Elite
Topics: 37 Posts: 421
| | 07/20/04 - 03:38 PM  
 
   
 
|   #1 |
a male inherits x maternally and y paternally. female inherits x from each parent. one of the x in the female is randomly inactivated, therefore, there can be an affected heterozygous female who manifests the disease. question: how can an affected male transmit the affected x to a daughter who is unaffected and transmit the same x to an affected son? assuming that the x in the unaffected daughter is inactivated (inactivation is fixed acdg to kaplan and so will all the x in the descendants)
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| mash Forum Fanatic
Topics: 147 Posts: 1,326
| | 07/20/04 - 04:08 PM  
 
   
 
|   #2 |
male wont transmit an X to his son
___________________ I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand. --Confucius
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| bm Forum Elite
Topics: 37 Posts: 421
| | 07/20/04 - 04:17 PM  
 
   
 
|   #3 |
oops sorry. for clarification, male transmits to daughter and daughter to her own son (3rd generation)
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| mash Forum Fanatic
Topics: 147 Posts: 1,326
| | 07/20/04 - 04:22 PM  
 
   
 
|   #4 |
i dont remember exactly but i think x inactivation does not occur in germ cells (x inactivation occurs on 16th day post fertilization and is random)
___________________ I hear and I forget. I see and I remember. I do and I understand. --Confucius
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| BumbleB Forum Junior
Topics: 2 Posts: 83
| | 07/23/04 - 09:54 PM  
 
   
 
|   #5 |
You often see X linked recessives (like Hemophilia A) skipping a generation: affected grandfather->normal mother-> affected son So go figure...
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